“A lot of people would like to say this is an immigration issue. It’s really not,” offered Gary Emineth, the head of North Dakotans for Citizen Voting and a candidate for state senator.
“It’s really about preserving the right for U.S. citizens, and in our case, North Dakota residents, to only be the voters in all elections across the state of North Dakota,” added Emineth. “And that’s why we want it in the constitution.”
Turning in more than 35,000 voter signatures on petitions last Friday, Emineth and others placed a constitutional amendment on this November’s ballot that, if passed, would make voting the exclusive right of U.S. citizens in North Dakota.
Elsewhere in the country, Emineth points out, non-citizens are already voting — in Chicago and San Francisco, and in 11 cities across Maryland. Moreover, campaigns are underway across the country to give non-citizens the vote — in California, Connecticut, New York City, Boston and Montpelier, Vermont.
Opponents claim the North Dakota measure is completely unnecessary, as the state doesn’t currently allow non-citizens to cast a ballot, nor has any city yet attempted to allow non-citizens to vote. But Emineth’s goal is to keep it that way.
Moreover, University of North Dakota Law Professor Steven Morrison acknowledged to The Forum in Fargo that “the proposed amendment does clean up what could be a grammatical loophole since the word ‘every’ doesn’t conclusively exclude non-citizens from voting.…”
It is a very simple proposition: Do you want voting to be the exclusive right of U.S. citizens? Or should non-citizens be allowed to vote?
Coming to a ballot near and Fargo.*
This is Common Sense. I’m Paul Jacob.
* With some help from Liberty Initiative Fund.
6 replies on “Should Non-Citizens Vote?”
A question about the initiative:
Does it also exempt those non-citizens from the various taxes that South Dakota and its various subdivisions levy?
“No taxation without representation.” I’m sure I’ve heard that somewhere.
I can’t vote if I go to Mexico or Japan or China or India or Brazil or Poland or Russia or Canada, or to any other country, yet I still have to pay sales taxes and/or whatever other taxes these countries impose on foreigners.
So why should foreigners be able to vote here?
If foreigners want to become voters, there is already a legal citizenship process to which they can apply, and if they complete it, they can become voters, and this country has an easier process for this than a lot of other countries have.
If coercive government is to exist, and if these coercive governments are to have elections, voting in said elections should apply only to citizens of said country.
If the facts even matter to your readers… North Dakota doesn’t require voter registration, so this problem is bigger than just non-citizen voters. All of those temporary residents who lived out west, in travel trailers, while they worked in the natural gas fields could vote. While the politician is throwing red meat to some voters over the immigration issue, the second order of effect will be a process of voter registration that will require the state to increase the election administration bureaucracy as they enforce residency laws. And BTW…SCOTUS has always affirmed it as being within the purview of a state to lock down the voter rolls up to 30 days before an election in order for the state to ascertain the residency of their voters. Only so-called “Progressive” states circumvent those rules with something called Same-Day Registration…which is an invitation for fraud.
People who are not vested in something should not be able to change that something. those who vote only to get more from.the government are in that group as well. Non citizens should have no voice in elections. When they become citizens, they then have the responsibilities and rights of citizens. Not before. Can I come to your house and change your life stule?
Constitutional amendment 19
The right of the citizens of The United States shall not be denied or abridged by The United State or any State on account of sex.
Congress shall have the power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation.
Constitutional amendment 26
The right of citizens of the United States who are 18 years of age or older, to vote, shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or any State on account of age.
The Congress shall have the power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation.
There it is in black and white. Only citizens can vote. All congress has to do is pass a law that says you have to be a citizen to vote in accordance with The Constitution. Trump would sign it immediately. Obama saying that non-citizens can vote is totally wrong.
Thomas Knapp said: “Does it also exempt those non-citizens from the various taxes that South Dakota and its various subdivisions levy?”
If I travel to another country, like say Mexico, or Japan, or India, or Brazil, or Poland, or Canada, I can’t vote in their elections, but I am still subjected to their sales taxes, or whatever other taxes they imposes on foreigners.
Why should it be any different here?
If coercive government is to exist, and if it is to have an election process, non-citizens should be prohibited from voting.